Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
14.06.2025 01:02
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
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There's no rule.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Why do very skinny girls get more male attention if it is true that men like curves?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Why do women consider 80% of men as unattractive?
You'll usually find your answer there.